Indifference price explained

In finance, indifference pricing is a method of pricing financial securities with regard to a utility function. The indifference price is also known as the reservation price or private valuation. In particular, the indifference price is the price at which an agent would have the same expected utility level by exercising a financial transaction as by not doing so (with optimal trading otherwise). Typically the indifference price is a pricing range (a bid–ask spread) for a specific agent; this price range is an example of good-deal bounds.[1]

Mathematics

Given a utility function

u

and a claim

CT

with known payoffs at some terminal time

T,

let the function

V:R x R\toR

be defined by

V(x,k)=

\sup
XT\inl{A

(x)}E\left[u\left(XT+kCT\right)\right]

,where

x

is the initial endowment,

l{A}(x)

is the set of all self-financing portfolios at time

T

starting with endowment

x

, and

k

is the number of the claim to be purchased (or sold). Then the indifference bid price

vb(k)

for

k

units of

CT

is the solution of

V(x-vb(k),k)=V(x,0)

and the indifference ask price

va(k)

is the solution of

V(x+va(k),-k)=V(x,0)

. The indifference price bound is the range

\left[vb(k),va(k)\right]

.[2]

Example

Consider a market with a risk free asset

B

with

B0=100

and

BT=110

, and a risky asset

S

with

S0=100

and

ST\in\{90,110,130\}

each with probability

1/3

. Let your utility function be given by

u(x)=1-\exp(-x/10)

. To find either the bid or ask indifference price for a single European call option with strike 110, first calculate

V(x,0)

.

V(x,0)=

max
\alphaB0+\betaS0=x

E[1-\exp(-.1 x (\alphaBT+\betaST))]

=max\beta\left[1-

1\left[\exp\left(-
3
1.10x-20\beta
10

\right)+\exp\left(-

1.10x
10

\right)+\exp\left(-

1.10x+20\beta
10

\right)\right]\right]

.Which is maximized when

\beta=0

, therefore

V(x,0)=1-\exp\left(-

1.10x
10

\right)

.

Now to find the indifference bid price solve for

V(x-vb(1),1)

V(x-vb(1),1)=

max
\alphaB0+\betaS0=x-vb(1)

E[1-\exp(-.1 x (\alphaBT+\betaST+CT))]

=max\beta\left[1-

1\left[\exp\left(-
3
1.10(x-vb(1))-20\beta
10

\right)+\exp\left(-

1.10(x-vb(1))
10

\right)+\exp\left(-

1.10(x-vb(1))+20\beta+20
10

\right)\right]\right]

Which is maximized when

\beta=-

1
2
, therefore

V(x-vb(1),1)=1-

1
3

\exp(-1.10x/10)\exp(1.10vb(1)/10)\left[1+2\exp(-1)\right]

.

Therefore

V(x,0)=V(x-vb(1),1)

when

vb(1)=

10log\left(
1.1
3
1+2\exp(-1)

\right)4.97

.

Similarly solve for

va(1)

to find the indifference ask price.

See also

Notes

\left[vb(k),va(k)\right]

are the indifference price bounds for a claim then by definition

vb(k)=-va(-k)

.

v(k)

is the indifference bid price for a claim and

vsup(k),vsub(k)

are the superhedging price and subhedging prices respectively then

vsub(k)\leqv(k)\leqvsup(k)

. Therefore, in a complete market the indifference price is always equal to the price to hedge the claim.

Notes and References

  1. Book: Financial Engineering. John R. Birge. 2008. Elsevier. 521–524. 978-0-444-51781-4.
  2. Book: Carmona, Rene. Indifference Pricing: Theory and Applications. Princeton University Press. 2009. 978-0-691-13883-1.