In combinatorics, Bertrand's ballot problem is the question: "In an election where candidate A receives p votes and candidate B receives q votes with p > q, what is the probability that A will be strictly ahead of B throughout the count?" The answer is
p-q | |
p+q |
.
The result was first published by W. A. Whitworth in 1878, but is named after Joseph Louis François Bertrand who rediscovered it in 1887.[1] [2] [3] [4] [5]
In Bertrand's original paper, he sketches a proof based on a general formula for the number of favourable sequences using a recursion relation. He remarks that it seems probable that such a simple result could be proved by a more direct method. Such a proof was given by Désiré André,[6] based on the observation that the unfavourable sequences can be divided into two equally probable cases, one of which (the case where B receives the first vote) is easily computed; he proves the equality by an explicit bijection. A variation of his method is popularly known as André's reflection method, although André did not use any reflections.[7]
Bertrand's ballot theorem is related to the cycle lemma. They give similar formulas, but the cycle lemma considers circular shifts of a given ballot counting order rather than all permutations.
Suppose there are 5 voters, of whom 3 vote for candidate A and 2 vote for candidate B (so p = 3 and q = 2). There are ten equally likely orders in which the votes could be counted:
For the order AABAB, the tally of the votes as the election progresses is:
Candidate | A | A | B | A | B | |
---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
A | 1 | 2 | 2 | 3 | 3 | |
B | 0 | 0 | 1 | 1 | 2 |
Candidate | A | A | B | B | A | |
---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
A | 1 | 2 | 2 | 2 | 3 | |
B | 0 | 0 | 1 | 2 | 2 |
2 | = | |
10 |
1 | |
5 |
,
3-2 | |
3+2 |
\tbinom{p+q}{p}
\tbinom{p+q-1}{p-1}-\tbinom{p+q-1}{p}
\tfrac{p}{p+q}-\tfrac{q}{p+q}=\tfrac{p-q}{p+q}
Another equivalent problem is to calculate the number of random walks on the integers that consist of n steps of unit length, beginning at the origin and ending at the point m, that never become negative. As n and m have the same parity and
n\gem\ge0
\binom{n}{\tfrac{n+m}2}-\binom{n}{\tfrac{n+m}2+1}=
m+1 | |
\tfrac{n+m |
2+1}\binom{n}{\tfrac{n+m}2}.
m=0
n
1{\tfrac{n}2+1}\binom{n}{\tfrac{n}2} | |
n
2-n
1{\tfrac{n}2+1}\binom{n}{\tfrac{n}2} | |
n\toinfty
\sim
\sqrt2 | |
n3/2 |
[Note that <math>m,n</math> have the same parity as follows: let <math>P</math> be the number of "positive" moves, i.e., to the right, and let <math>N</math> be the number of "negative" moves, i.e., to the left. Since <math>P+N=n</math> and <math>P-N=m</math>, we have <math>P=\frac{n+m}{2}</math> and <math>N=\frac{n-m}{2}</math>. Since <math>P</math> and <math>N</math> are integers,<math>m,n</math> have the same parity]
For A to be strictly ahead of B throughout the counting of the votes, there can be no ties. Separate the counting sequences according to the first vote. Any sequence that begins with a vote for B must reach a tie at some point, because A eventually wins. For any sequence that begins with A and reaches a tie, reflect the votes up to the point of the first tie (so any A becomes a B, and vice versa) to obtain a sequence that begins with B. Hence every sequence that begins with A and reaches a tie is in one-to-one correspondence with a sequence that begins with B, and the probability that a sequence begins with B is
q/(p+q)
=1-
=1-
=1-2 x (
)
=1-2 x (
)
=1-2
q | = | |
p+q |
p-q | |
p+q |
Another method of proof is by mathematical induction:
p>q
p\geqq
p=q
a=b
{a\over(a+b)}{(a-1)-b\over(a+b-1)}+{b\over(a+b)}{a-(b-1)\over(a+b-1)}={a-b\overa+b}.
A simple proof is based on the cycle lemma of Dvoretzky and Motzkin.Call a ballot sequence dominating if A is strictly ahead of B throughout the counting of the votes. The cycle lemma asserts that any sequence of
p
q
p>q
p-q
p+q
p-q
p-q
p+q
p
q
Let
n=p+q
where
Sn-k
n-k
Claim:
Xk
Given, we know thatXk
, so of the firstSn-k=(n-k)Xk
votes,n-k
were for candidate A, and
Xk+1 2 (n-k)
were for candidate B.
-Xk+1 2 (n-k)
So, with probabilityDefine the stopping time, we have
Xk+1 2 , andSn-k-1=Sn-k-1
. Similarly for the other one. Then compute to findXk+1=
n-k n-k-1 Xk-
1 n-k-1 .E[Xk+1|Xk]=Xk
T
k
Xk=0
n-1
k
E[XT]
E[XT]=E[X0]=
p-q | |
p+q |
Bertrand expressed the solution as
2m-\mu | |
\mu |
\mu=p+q
m=p
Pm+1,\mu+1=Pm,\mu+Pm+1,\mu,
Pm,\mu
\tbinom{p+q-1}{q-1}
\binom{p+q}{q}-2\binom{p+q-1}{q-1}=\binom{p+q}{q} | p-q |
p+q |
p-q | |
p+q |
The original problem is to find the probability that the first candidate is always strictly ahead in the vote count. One may instead consider the problem of finding the probability that the second candidate is never ahead (that is, with ties are allowed). In this case, the answer is
p+1-q | |
p+1 |
.
\tbinom{p+q}{q}
Represent a voting sequence as a lattice path on the Cartesian plane as follows:
Each such path corresponds to a unique sequence of votes and will end at (p, q). A sequence is 'good' exactly when the corresponding path never goes above the diagonal line y = x; equivalently, a sequence is 'bad' exactly when the corresponding path touches the line y = x + 1.For each 'bad' path P, define a new path P′ by reflecting the part of P up to the first point it touches the line across it. P′ is a path from (−1, 1) to (p, q). The same operation applied again restores the original P. This produces a one-to-one correspondence between the 'bad' paths and the paths from (−1, 1) to (p, q). The number of these paths is
\tbinom{p+q}{q-1}
\binom{p+q}{q}-\binom{p+q}{q-1}=\binom{p+q}{q}
p+1-q | |
p+1 |
.
\tbinom{p+q}{q}
\tfrac{p+1-q}{p+1}
In fact, the solutions to the original problem and the variant problem are easily related. For candidate A to be strictly ahead throughout the vote count, they must receive the first vote and for the remaining votes (ignoring the first) they must be either strictly ahead or tied throughout the count. Hence the solution to the original problem is
p | |
p+q |
p-1+1-q | = | |
p-1+1 |
p-q | |
p+q |
Conversely, the tie case can be derived from the non-tie case. Note that the number of non-tie sequences with p+1 votes for A is equal to the number of tie sequences with p votes for A. The number of non-tie votes with p + 1 votes for A votes is
\tfrac{p+1-q}{p+1+q}\tbinom{p+1+q}{q}
\tfrac{p+1-q}{p+1}\tbinom{p+q}{q}
\tfrac{p+1-q}{p+1}