The Brownian motion models for financial markets are based on the work of Robert C. Merton and Paul A. Samuelson, as extensions to the one-period market models of Harold Markowitz and William F. Sharpe, and are concerned with defining the concepts of financial assets and markets, portfolios, gains and wealth in terms of continuous-time stochastic processes.
Under this model, these assets have continuous prices evolving continuously in time and are driven by Brownian motion processes.[1] This model requires an assumption of perfectly divisible assets and a frictionless market (i.e. that no transaction costs occur either for buying or selling). Another assumption is that asset prices have no jumps, that is there are no surprises in the market. This last assumption is removed in jump diffusion models.
Consider a financial market consisting of
N+1
N
A financial market is defined as
l{M}=(r,b,\delta,\sigma,A,S(0))
(\Omega,l{F},P)
[0,T]
D
W(t)=(W1(t)\ldotsWD(t))',
0\leqt\leqT
\{l{F}(t); 0\leqt\leqT\}
r(t)\inL1[0,T]
b:[0,T] x RN → R\inL2[0,T]
\delta:[0,T] x RN → R\inL2[0,T]
\sigma:[0,T] x RN → R
N | |
\sum | |
n=1 |
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
T | |
\int | |
0 |
2(s)ds | |
\sigma | |
n,d |
<infty
A(t)
S(0)=(S0(0),\ldotsSN(0))'
Let
(\Omega,l{F},p)
W(t)=(W1(t)\ldotsWD(t))', 0\leqt\leqT
l{F}W(t)\triangleq\sigma\left(\{W(s); 0\leqs\leqt \}\right), \forallt\in[0,T].
If
l{N}
P
l{F}W(t)
l{F}(t)\triangleq\sigma\left(l{F}W(t)\cup l{N}\right), \forallt\in[0,T]
The difference between
\{l{F}W(t); 0\leqt\leqT\}
\{l{F}(t); 0\leqt\leqT\}
l{F}(t)=\sigma\left(cup0\leql{F}(s) \right),
and right-continuous, such that:
l{F}(t)=captl{F}(s),
while the former is only left-continuous.[2]
A share of a bond (money market) has price
S0(t)>0
t
S0(0)=1
\{l{F}(t); 0\leqt\leqT\}
a | |
S | |
0(t) |
s | |
S | |
0(t) |
r(t)\triangleq
1 | |
S0(t) |
d | |
dt |
a | |
S | |
0(t), |
A(t)\triangleq
t | |
\int | |
0 |
1 | |
S0(s) |
s | |
dS | |
0(s), |
resulting in the SDE:
dS0(t)=S0(t)[r(t)dt+dA(t)], \forall0\leqt\leqT,
which gives:
S0(t)=
t | |
\exp\left(\int | |
0 |
r(s)ds+A(t)\right), \forall0\leqt\leqT.
Thus, it can be easily seen that if
S0(t)
A( ⋅ )=0
r(t)
l{F}(t)
Stock prices are modeled as being similar to that of bonds, except with a randomly fluctuating component (called its volatility). As a premium for the risk originating from these random fluctuations, the mean rate of return of a stock is higher than that of a bond.
Let
S1(t)\ldotsSN(t)
N
dSn(t)=Sn(t)\left[bn(t)dt+dA(t)+
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
\sigman,d(t)dWd(t)\right], \forall0\leqt\leqT, n=1\ldotsN.
Here,
\sigman,d(t), d=1\ldotsD
n
bn(t)
In order for an arbitrage-free pricing scenario,
A(t)
Sn(t)=Sn(0)\exp\left(\int
t | |
0 |
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
\sigman,d(s)dWd(s)+
t | |
\int | |
0 |
\left[bn(s)-
1 | |
2 |
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
2 | |
\sigma | |
n,d |
(s)\right]ds+A(t)\right), \forall0\leqt\leqT, n=1\ldotsN,
and the discounted stock prices are:
Sn(t) | |
S0(t) |
=Sn(0)\exp\left(\int
t | |
0 |
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
\sigman,d(s)dWd(s)+
t | |
\int | |
0 |
\left[bn(s)-r(s)-
1 | |
2 |
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
2 | |
\sigma | |
n,d |
(s)\right]ds\right), \forall0\leqt\leqT, n=1\ldotsN.
Note that the contribution due to the discontinuities in the bond price
A(t)
Each stock may have an associated dividend rate process
\deltan(t)
t
Yn(t)
dYn(t)=Sn(t)\left[bn(t)dt+dA(t)+
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
\sigman,d(t)dWd(t)+\deltan(t)\right], \forall0\leqt\leqT, n=1\ldotsN.
Consider a financial market
l{M}=(r,b,\delta,\sigma,A,S(0))
A portfolio process
(\pi0,\pi1,\ldots\piN)
l{F}(t)
RN+1
T | |
\int | |
0 |
|
N\pi | |
\sum | |
n(t)| |
\left[|r(t)|dt+dA(t)\right]<infty
T | |
\int | |
0 |
N\pi | |
|\sum | |
n(t)[b |
n(t)+\deltan(t)-r(t)]|dt<infty
T | |
\int | |
0 |
N\sigma | |
\sum | |
n,d |
2 | |
(t)\pi | |
n(t)| |
dt<infty
The gains process for this portfolio is:
G(t)\triangleq
t | |
\int | |
0 |
N\pi | |
\left[\sum | |
n(t)\right]\left(r(s)ds |
+dA(s)\right)+
t | |
\int | |
0 |
N\pi | |
\left[\sum | |
n(t)\left(b |
n(t)+\deltan(t)-r(t)\right)\right]dt+
t | |
\int | |
0 |
N\sigma | |
\sum | |
n,d |
(t)\pin(t)dWd(s) 0\leqt\leqT
We say that the portfolio is self-financed if:
G(t)=
N | |
\sum | |
n=0 |
\pin(t)
It turns out that for a self-financed portfolio, the appropriate value of
\pi0
\pi=(\pi1,\ldots\piN)
\pi
\pi0<0
\pin<0
The term
bn(t)+\deltan(t)-r(t)
G(t)
n
Consider time intervals
0=t0<t1<\ldots<tM=T
\nun(tm)
n=0\ldotsN
[tm,tm+1 m=0\ldotsM-1
\nun(tm)
l{F}(tm)
Therefore, the incremental gains at each trading interval from such a portfolio is:
G(0)=0,
G(tm+1)-G(tm)=
N | |
\sum | |
n=0 |
\nun(tm)[Yn(tm+1)-Yn(tm)], m=0\ldotsM-1,
and
G(tm)
[0,tm]
N | |
\sum | |
n=0 |
\nun(tm)Sn(tm)
Define
\pin(t)\triangleq\nun(t)
Y(t)
\pin(t)
n
t
Given a financial market
l{M}
\Gamma(t) 0\leqt\leqT
[0,t]
N+1
A wealth process
X(t)
X(t)\triangleqG(t)+\Gamma(t)
and represents the total wealth of an investor at time
0\leqt\leqT
\Gamma(t)
X(t)=
N | |
\sum | |
n=0 |
\pin(t).
The corresponding SDE for the wealth process, through appropriate substitutions, becomes:
dX(t)=d\Gamma(t)+X(t)\left[r(t)dt+dA(t)\right]+
N | |
\sum | |
n=1 |
\left[\pin(t)\left(bn(t)+\deltan(t)-r(t)\right)\right]+
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
N | |
\left[\sum | |
n=1 |
\pin(t)\sigman,d(t)\right]dWd(t)
Note, that again in this case, the value of
\pi0
\pin, n=1\ldotsN
The standard theory of mathematical finance is restricted to viable financial markets, i.e. those in which there are no opportunities for arbitrage. If such opportunities exists, it implies the possibility of making an arbitrarily large risk-free profit.
In a financial market
l{M}
\pi(t)
G(T)\geq0
P[G(T)>0]>0
l{M}
In a viable market
l{M}
l{F}(t)
\theta:[0,T] x RD → R
t\in[0,T]
bn(t)+\deltan(t)-r(t)=
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
\sigman,d(t)\thetad(t)
This
\theta
n
\sigman, ⋅
Conversely, if there exists a D-dimensional process
\theta(t)
T | |
\int | |
0 |
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
2 | |
|\theta | |
d(t)| |
dt<infty
E\left[\exp\left\{
T | |
-\int | |
0 |
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
\thetad(t)dWd(t)-
1 | |
2 |
T | |
\int | |
0 |
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
2 | |
|\theta | |
d(t)| |
dt\right\}\right]=1
then the market is viable.
Also, a viable market
l{M}
n
\sigman,d=0, d=1\ldotsD
\deltan(t)=0
bn(t)=r(t)
Sn(t)=Sn(0)S0(t)
A financial market
l{M}
(i) It is viable.
(ii) The number of stocks
N
D
W(t)
(iii) The market price of risk process
\theta
T | |
\int | |
0 |
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
2 | |
|\theta | |
d(t)| |
dt<infty
(iv) The positive process
Z0(t)=\exp\left\{
t | |
-\int | |
0 |
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
\thetad(t)dWd(t)-
1 | |
2 |
t | |
\int | |
0 |
D | |
\sum | |
d=1 |
2 | |
|\theta | |
d(t)| |
dt\right\}
In case the number of stocks
N
D
N-D
(\sigman,1\ldots\sigman,D)
D
\sigma
D
N
D
The standard martingale measure
P0
l{F}(T)
P0(A)\triangleqE[Z0(T)1A], \forallA\inl{F}(T)
Note that
P
P0
W0(t)\triangleqW(t)+
t | |
\int | |
0 |
\theta(s)ds
is a
D
\{l{F}(t); 0\leqt\leqT\}
P0
A complete financial market is one that allows effective hedging of the risk inherent in any investment strategy.
Let
l{M}
B
l{F}(T)
P | ||||
|
>-infty\right]=1
x\triangleq
E | ||||
|
\right]<infty
The market
l{M}
B
x
(\pin(t); n=1\ldotsN)
X(t)
X(t)=B
If a particular investment strategy calls for a payment
B
T
t=0
x=\sup\omegaB(\omega)
x
T
B
A standard financial market
l{M}
N=D
N x D
\sigma(t)
t\in[0,T]
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